But did Paul mean to teach that? Did he mean to affirm that any man in fact had been, or could be justified by his own obedience to the Law? Let his own writings answer see, especially, Romans 3:20. That this had ever in fact occurred among true Christians the apostle does not affirm unless he affirmed that people can in fact be justified by the Law, since he makes the falling from grace a consequence of that. Ye are fallen from grace - That is, this would amount to apostasy from the religion of the Redeemer, and would be in fact a rejection of the grace of the gospel. If such a thing should or could occur, it would follow that you had fallen from grace. The apostle does not say that this had in fact ever occurred but he merely makes a supposition. Whosoever of you are justified by the law - On the supposition that any of you are justified by the Law or if, as you seem to suppose, any are justified by the Law. A man who can be justified by his own obedience, does not need the aid or the merit of another and if it was true, as they seemed to suppose, that they could be justified by the Law, it followed that the work of Christ was in vain so far as they were concerned.
They would not need him if they could be thus justified and they could derive no benefit from him. Tyndale renders this: "Ye are gone quite from Christ." The word here used (καταργέω katargeō), means properly, to render inactive, idle, useless to do away, to put an end to and here it means that they had withdrawn from Christ, if they attempted to be justified by the Law. If you can be justified in any other way than by him, then of course you do not need him, and your adoption of the other mode is in fact a renunciation of him. His work in regard to you is needless and vain. Barnes' Notes on the BibleChrist is become of no effect unto you - You will derive no advantage from Christ.
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